Here is an interesting article I came across in the New York Times archive. Dr. Nahum Goldmann of the World Jewish Congress warns that "Six million Jews in Europe are doomed to destruction". But note the date at the bottom: June 25 1940. The Wannsee conference, which is supposed to have made arrangements for the "Final Solution", was not held until January 1942. How could Goldmann have known in advance the exact number of Jews that would perish?
Later he talks about "even the 4,000,000 Jews in Russia..." Is this 4 million figure supposed to be part of the previously mentioned 6 million figure or separate from it? In context, it's ambiguous, but I read it as implying that the 4 million were part of the 6 million European Jews. After all, he mentions the 6 million in the context of a final Nazi victory, implying that the Nazis would have conquered the whole of Europe and therefore have power over all of the continent's Jews. This reasoning implies that 4 million Jews were living in Russian territories and 2 million elsewhere in Europe, amounting to 6 million Jews in Europe in total. But if there were 6 million Jews in Europe in total and 6 million were killed, how can so many have survived to tell their stories and move to Israel, etc.? No one seriously claims that 100% or even close to 100% of Europe's Jews were killed in the Holocaust. Somehow these numbers do not compute, and there is something very strange about this Six Million figure having been decided in advance.